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A guy in Facebook claims he's come up with an algebraic field extension to the complex plane. He's defined the unit multiplications as $i^2=-1$, $j^2=i$ and $k^2=-i$. This implies that $ij=ji=k$, $ik=ki=-j$ and $jk=kj=-1$.

Furthermore complex numbers are seemingly a subset of this space, since each complex number $z = a + bi$ can be represented as $a + bi + 0j + 0k$.

So far I've checked that both addition and multiplication in this space are indeed associative and commutative, the addition and multiplication are distributive, and that $0$ and $1$ are the additive and multiplicative inverses respectively. I've yet to find an example of a non-inversible element.

Could someone help explain what's going on?

Sammy Black
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Your Facebook guy seems to have stumbled upon some interesting identities among $8$-th roots of unity. To wit, $$ j = e^{\pi i/4} = \tfrac{\sqrt{2}}{2} (1+i) \qquad \text{and} \qquad k = e^{3\pi i/4} = \tfrac{\sqrt{2}}{2} (-1+i) $$ satisfy all of your identities within $\mathbb{C}$. (Notice that $i = j^2$ and $k = j^3$.) This had to be the case since $\mathbb{C}$ is algebraically closed. This means that any $\mathbb{R}$-linear combination of $1, i, j, $ and $k$ can actually be expressed just in the span of $1, i$.

Note: the pair $-j, -k$ would also work.

mrtaurho
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Sammy Black
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If $j^2=i$, then $j$ is a squareroot of $i$. This implies that $j\in \mathbb{C}$ as $\mathbb{C}$ is algebraically closed. Furthermore, if $ij=k$, then $k\in \mathbb{C}$ as well. This is not an extension, there are no elements being added.

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    I too noticed that $j$ is another root for $z^2=i$, but is this a problem? Even in Hamilton quaternions $j^2=-1$ which does not imply that $j=i$. – Esa Lindqvist Feb 22 '21 at 07:03
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    @EsaLindqvist In that case, we have $(j-(1+i)/\sqrt2) (j+(1+i)/\sqrt2) = i-i = 0$, so both $j-(1+i)/\sqrt2$ and $j+(1+i)/\sqrt2$ are zero divisors, thus noninvertible. – pregunton Feb 22 '21 at 07:12
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    @EsaLindqvist In a commutative integral domain a quadratic can have at most two zeros. Hamilton quaternions are not commutative. Indeed, $x^2=-1$ has infinitely many solutions in $\Bbb{H}$. See this short exposition by Arturo Magidin for an explanation as to why commutativity plays a role here. – Jyrki Lahtonen Feb 22 '21 at 07:19
  • Precisely, your facebook guy declares this thing to be a field extension (so in particular, it needs be compatible with all algebraic equations). The quaternions are not a field, as such you really can have multiple (more than the degree) roots to the equation $z^2+1=0$ which are independent ($i,j,k$). – Mathematician 42 Feb 22 '21 at 07:21
  • Intuitively this construction feels like a four dimensional space, but it's not. Is there some graphic or layman's explanation that would make it more clear what is actually happening in this construction? – Esa Lindqvist Feb 22 '21 at 07:29
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    Or alternatively, what would be the implications if we were to suppose that $z^2 = i$ had more than two solutions? – Esa Lindqvist Feb 22 '21 at 07:35
  • @JyrkiLahtonen considering the fact that Hamilton quaternions are defined with unit vectors such that $i^2 = j^2 = k^2 = ijk = -1$, which incidentally implies that they are not commutative (as is easily proven elsewhere). So the underlying assumption already is that there are several roots to $z^2 + 1 = 0$. – Esa Lindqvist Feb 22 '21 at 09:04
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    No one's mentioned this yet: you can interpret this as a 4D algebra (in two different ways), or even an 8D algebra, at the cost of no longer having a field. For instance, ignoring $k$ for the moment, you can interpret adjoining-$j$-satisfying-"$j^2=i$" as the algebra $\Bbb C[j]/(j^2-i)$, which is equivalent to $\Bbb C\oplus\Bbb C$. – anon Feb 23 '21 at 11:19
  • @EsaLindqvist in tessarines (which are 4D) any quadratic has up to 4 roots. Not a big problem, but it is not a field (has null elements). – Anixx Sep 25 '21 at 12:24
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This is not an answer but an answer to some comments which is simply too long to be a comment itself:

Intuitively this construction feels like a four dimensional space, but it's not. Is there some graphic or layman's explanation that would make it more clear what is actually happening in this construction?

I do not have a graphical explanation. The crucial point indeed is that the space is not four dimensional. If you are familiar with group presentations, a very similar issue occurs. Suppose you have a group generated by a bunch of elements ($a,b,c$) and you are giving a bunch of relations in between those elements ($a^2b=cb, \dots$). It is possible that you have so many relations that one does not really need all generators (for example $a^2b=cb$ implies that $a^2=c$ and thus $c$ is redundant). In this you at first might be tempted to think that this group needed three generators, but actually less suffice.

Your facebook guy did something similar. At first glance it looks like you need 4 independent vectors te express everything, but these vectors are really not independent. That's the crux of the current story.

Or alternatively, what would be the implications if we were to suppose that $z^2=i$ had more than two solutions?

If $z^2-i=0$ has more than two solutions, you cannot be working in a field. Indeed, you can easily prove that any polynomial $P(X)\in K[X]$ of degree $n$ over a field $K$ cannot have more than $n$ roots. The proof is straightforward as soon as you have the division algorithm for polynomials over a field.

Edit: I'll include a proof of the latter statement. Let $P(X)\in K[X]$ be a polynomial. We can write $$P(X)=\sum_{i=0}^na_iX^i$$ with each $a_i\in K$ and $a_n\neq 0$. First note that we may assume that $a_n=1$ by multiplying the polynomial by $a_n^{-1}$ (here I use that $K$ is a field). Furthermore, doing so does not change the roots of $P(X)$ (that's a claim that you can prove as an exercise).

Now I claim the following: If $c\in K$ is a root of $P(X)$ (i.e. $P(c)=0$), then $$P(X)=(X-c)Q(X)$$ for some polynomial $Q(X)\in K[X]$ with $\deg(Q(X))=\deg(P(X))-1$. Indeed, by the division algorithm for polynomials, one can write $$P(X)=(X-c)Q(X)+R(X)$$ where $Q(X),R(X)\in K[X]$ and $\deg(Q(X))\leq \deg(P(X))$ and $\deg(R(X))<\deg(P(X))=1$. By assumption, $P(c)=(c-c)Q(c)+R(c)=R(c)=0$. On the other hand, $\deg(R(X))=0$ and thus $R(X)=0$ as it is a constant polynomial. Thus $P(X)=(X-c)Q(X)$ as required.

Hence we now showed that if $c$ is a root of $P(X)$, then we find that $P(X)=(X-c)Q(X)$ with $\deg(Q(X))=\deg(P(X))-1$. Now assume that $P(X)$ has more roots than its degree. Iterating the above procedure, you find that $P(X)=(X-c_1)(X-c_2)\dots (X-c_m)Q(X)$ with $m>\deg(P(X))$, but then $\deg(P(X))\geq m$, a contradiction!

  • Thanks. I have a hunch that this is a direct implication from the fundamental theorem of algebra. – Esa Lindqvist Feb 22 '21 at 07:56
  • Which part do you mean? – Mathematician 42 Feb 22 '21 at 07:59
  • That in complex plane, each polynomial has at least one root in the plane. You are proposing that each polynomial has at most $n$ roots, where $n$ is the degree of the polynomial. So I suppose that there are some implications between the two. – Esa Lindqvist Feb 22 '21 at 08:03
  • See my edit for a proof of the claim. In any field, a polynomial cannot have more roots than its degree. The fundamental theorem of algebra says that any polynomial over $\mathbb{C}$ has precisely as many roots (with multiplicity) as the degree of the polynomial. That's a much stronger statement than the first. – Mathematician 42 Feb 22 '21 at 08:18
  • Alright, thanks! I think this suffices to convince the Facebook guy. – Esa Lindqvist Feb 22 '21 at 08:19
  • @EsaLindqvist It may be worth emphasizing that if we drop commutativity, then the argument fails at the point where Mathematician42 calculates $$P(c)=(c-c)Q(c)+R(c).$$ Without commutativity we don't have the rule that a polynomial factorization $P(x)=(x-c)Q(x)$ implies the same for the values at a point. In other words, we may have $P(d)\neq (d-c) Q(d)$. Hamiltonian quaternions offer an example. There we have $x^2+1=(x-i)(x+i)$, but $$j^2+1=0\neq (j-i)(j+i).$$ – Jyrki Lahtonen Feb 22 '21 at 10:22
  • Thanks @JyrkiLahtonen. So in essence if we assume that this "four" dimensional space is commutative, we necessarily prove that it is, in fact, just the plain old complex field. – Esa Lindqvist Feb 22 '21 at 10:29
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    @EsaLindqvist Correct. A final remark may be that if, instead of using all the real coefficientsin the proposed $a+bi+cj+dk$ construction, we restrict the coefficients $a,b,c,d$ to rational numbers, then we do get a 4-dimensional field extension over $\Bbb{Q}$! This may explain why your FB-friend could not easily find zero divisors. We absolutely need that $\sqrt2$ to make an appearance in at least one of the coordinates. Topology (more precisely, the completeness of the reals) makes a huge difference here, severely tying our hands. – Jyrki Lahtonen Feb 22 '21 at 10:42
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    Oh wow. That's actually quite cool. – Esa Lindqvist Feb 22 '21 at 10:51
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You're looking at the extension $\Bbb{C}\subset\Bbb{C}[j,k]$ where $j$ and $k$ satisfy $j^2=i$ and $k^2=-i$. The key is that you are requiring this to be an extension of fields. Over a field, a polynomial of degree $d$ has at most $d$ roots. As $j$ and $k$ are zeros of $X^2\pm i\in\Bbb{C}[X]$, and we can find two roots of both quadratics in $\Bbb{C}$, it follows that $\Bbb{C}[j,k]$ is isomorphic to (a subfield of) $\Bbb{C}$.

More explicitly, we can find the polar forms of these roots from the fact that $\pm i=e^{\pm\tfrac{\pi}{2}i}$. It follows that $$j=\pm e^{\tfrac{\pi}{4}i}\qquad\text{ and }\qquad k=\pm e^{-\tfrac{\pi}{4}i},$$ because these four complex numbers are precisely the roots of $X^2\pm i$.

Similarly we could find the Cartesian forms of these roots by solving $(a+bi)^2=\pm i$. This is equivalent to the simultaneous equations $$a^2-b^2=0\qquad\text{ and }\qquad 2ab=\pm1.$$ The former implies that $b=\pm a$ and hence the latter reduces to $2a^2=\pm1$, or equivalently $a=\pm\sqrt{\pm\tfrac12}$, which we can express more concisely as $a=i^k\tfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$. Tracing our steps back then shows that $$j=\pm\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(1+i)\qquad\text{ and }\qquad k=\pm\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(1-i).$$ Either way we see that $\Bbb{C}[j,k]$ is isomorphic to a subfield of $\Bbb{C}$, and hence isomorphic to $\Bbb{C}$ itself.

Servaes
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