We know whenever you square a given number $a$ The last digit of $a^2$ would be in the set :$$\{0,1,4,5,6,9\}$$ I didn’t quite understand the proof that was in my number theory book.
I will present it here: $$10 \equiv 0 \mod 10 \implies a=\sum_{i=0}^{n} a_i 10^i \equiv a_o \mod 10$$ $$\implies a^2\equiv a_o^2 \mod 10$$ But $a_o \in \{0,1,2,3...9\} \implies a_o^2 \mod 10 \in \{0,1,4,5,6,9\}$.
So the unit digit of $a^2$Is in the set $ \{0,1,4,5,6,9\} $ .
My problem is in the first line because if you call a function $$f(x)=\sum_{i=0}^{n} a_i x^i \implies f(0)=0$$
So why did the book named $a_o$ instead of $0$
$$ \bmod 10!:,\ \color{#c00}{10\equiv 0}\Rightarrow f(\color{#c00}{10})\equiv f(\color{#c00}0)\equiv a_0 = \text{constant coef of $f$}$$ Finally $,a\equiv a_0\Rightarrow a^2\equiv a_0^2,$ by the Congruence Power Rule.
– Bill Dubuque Feb 18 '21 at 20:55