I'm trying to show that $f$ is bounded and Riemann integrable on $[a, b]$ implies that there exists a sequence $\{P_1, P_2, P_3, \ldots\}$ of partitions of $[a, b]$ s.t. $$ \lim_{n\to \infty} [U_f(P_n)-L_f(P_n)] = 0 $$ in which case $$ \int\limits_a^b f(x) dx = \lim_{n\to \infty} U_f(P_n) = \lim_{n\to \infty} L_f(P_n). $$ (This is one part of an iff proof of the sequential characterization of the Riemann integral)
I wanted to do a proof by contradiction, and I found something I think would help finish my proof from this answer, but I'm not sure if I need to prove this or if it's some kind of definition or something. I've looked everywhere and can't find anything.
I'll lay out what I have so far:
Suppose $\lim_{n\to \infty} [U_f(P_n)-L_f(P_n)] \not= 0$. Then $\lim_{n\to \infty} U_f(P_n) - \lim_{n \to \infty}L_f(P_n) \not= 0$
$\Rightarrow \lim_{n\to \infty} U_f(P_n) \not= \lim_{n \to \infty}L_f(P_n)$.
Observe that for $\|P\|$ defined as the length of the largest subinterval $[x_{i-1}, x_i]$, $1 \leq i \leq n$, as $n \rightarrow \infty, \|P\| \rightarrow 0$ since the more partitions there are over the fixed interval, the smaller they must be in length in order to fit into the interval.
Then $\lim_{\|P\|\to 0} U_f(P_n) \not= \lim_{\|P\| \to 0}L_f(P_n)$ by the above explanation.
This is where I'm stuck, because if I can just say that $\lim_{\|P\|\to 0} L(f,P)=\sup_P L(f,P)$, and $\lim_{\|P\|\rightarrow 0} U(f,P)=\inf_P U(f,P)$ then we know the upper and lower Darboux integrals aren't equal, and thus $f$ isn't Riemann integrable, which is a contradiction.
Any help is appreciated, thanks in advance.