i tried to prove that $2^{44} \equiv 1\pmod{89}$.
I noticed that by Fermat's little theorem $2^{88} \equiv 2^{44}\cdot 2^{44} \equiv 1\pmod{89}$ which means that $2^{44}$ is the inverse of itself $\rightarrow 2^{44} \equiv 1 \pmod{89}$ or $2^{44}\equiv 88 \pmod{89}$.
how can I rule out the second option?