For $n\ge 0$, show $\sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{2k}{k} \binom{2(n-k)}{n-k} = 4^n$.
Want to first clarify the logic of the problem.
It is not only having variable $k$ (in number of items to be chosen in each category) as variable, but also having the quantity available in each category as variable.
I mean if instead of taking variable quantity : $2k, 2(n-k)$, have fixed qty. (say, $x,y$), then can define a problem as choosing a total of $k$ items from two categories having fixed quantities $x,y$.
But, now the two input quantities are variable and this makes it difficult to find a problem that can be represented by the equality.
Now, try to prove it using MI.
Over a well ordered set of non-negative integers, induction can be used.
Base case: $n=0$
$\binom{0}{0} \binom{0}{0} = 1$.
Taking the rhs, get : $4^0= 1$.
Induction hypothesis: it is true for natural number $n$.
So, $\sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{2k}{k} \binom{2(n-k)}{n-k} = 4^n$
Inductive step: need show for next natural $n+1$
$\sum_{k=0}^{n+1} \binom{2k}{k} \binom{2(n+1-k)}{n+1-k} = 4^{n+1}$
This should lead to :
$4^n + \binom{2(n+1)}{(n+1)} \binom{2((n+1)-(n+1))}{((n+1)-(n+1))}= 4^{n+1}$
$\implies \binom{2(n+1)}{(n+1)} = 4^{n}.(3)$
Please help to proceed further, or suggest alternative approach.
$$\sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{2k}{k} \binom{2(n-k)}{n-k} = \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{2k!}{(k!)^{2}} \frac{(2(n-k))!}{((n-k)!)^{2}} = \sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{\binom{n}{k} \binom{n}{n-k} \binom{2n}{n}}{\binom{2n}{2k}} = \binom{2n}{n} \sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{\binom{n}{k} \binom{n}{n-k} }{\binom{2n}{2k}}$$
– open problem Feb 03 '21 at 07:41