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In the following triangle, AB is parallel to DE. F is an intersection point of the segments BD, AE and CG. Is it true that AG = GB? enter image description here

nonuser
  • 90,026

2 Answers2

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In the following, I have incorrectly assumed D and E are the midpoints of CA and CB respectively. Please jump right to the section labeled as "CORRECTED version".

We can play withit using areas. The respective regions are labelled as shown. enter image description here

(1) + (2) = (3) = (6) = (8)+ (7)

∴ (1) + (2) + (3) = (6) + (8)+ (7) = x, say

$\dfrac {x + (4)}{x +(5)} = \dfrac {(4)}{(5)}$

This gives (4) = (5) and the required result follows


CORRECTED version

Let C(F)G cut DE at H. Suppose that DH : HE = p : q.

enter image description here

Then, (1) by similar triangles, AG = kp and GB = kq for some non-zero constant k; (2) by triangles with the same altitude, [FDH] = hp and [FEH] = hq for some non-zero constant h.

Let [AFG] = x and [BFG] = y. Then, by considering areas of similar objects, $x = hq \times (\dfrac {kp}{q})^2$ and $y = hp \times (\dfrac {kq}{p})^2$.

Therefore, $\dfrac {x}{y} = … = (\dfrac {p}{q})^3$

Since, by considering area of triangles with the same altitude, $\dfrac {x}{y} = \dfrac {kp}{kq}$

From $(\dfrac {p}{q})^3 = \dfrac {kp}{kq}$, we have $p = q$ after rejecting the negative quantities.

Mick
  • 17,141
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Yes, use Ceva Theorem: $${AG\over GB}\cdot {BE\over EC}\cdot {CD\over DA}=1$$ and Thales theorem: $${CD\over DA} = {EC\over BE} $$ and thus a conclusion.

nonuser
  • 90,026