I'm reading "Measure and integral" Wheeden & Zygmund. One of its exercises on bounded variation, asked me to prove :
If $V[\phi; a,b]=\infty$. Show there exists a point $z\in[a,b]$ and a monotone sequence $(z_n)_{n\geq 1}$ such that $z_n\to z$ and such that $\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} |\phi(z_i)-\phi(z_{i-1})|=\infty$
The variation of a function $\phi$ on $[a,b]$ is defined as: $$V[\phi;a,b]=\sup_{\Gamma}S_\Gamma=\sup_{\Gamma}\sum_{i=1}^m|\phi(x_i)-\phi(x_{i-1})|,\ \mathrm{where}\ \Gamma=\{x_0,\cdots,x_m\}\ \mathrm{it's\ a \ partition \ of\ } [a,b] $$
When $V[\phi;a,b]<\infty$ it is say that $\phi$ is of bounded variation on $[a,b]$. In order to prove this result, I already have demostrated the following two previous exercises:
If $V[\phi;a,b]=\infty$ there is a point $z\in [a,b]$ such that either $V[\phi;I]=\infty$ for every subinterval $I$ of $[a,b]$ having $z$ as left-hand endpoint or $V[\phi;I]=\infty$ if the interval has $z$ as right-hand endpoint.
Let $\phi$ is finite on $[a,b]$ and of bounded variation on every interval $[a+\varepsilon,b]$, $\varepsilon>0$, with $V[\phi;a+\varepsilon,b]\leq M<\infty$. Then $V[\phi;a,b]<\infty.$
Attempt: The idea is to use the previous two results. Let $z$ the point found, such that $V[\phi;z,z+\varepsilon]=\infty$ for every $\varepsilon>0$. Let $M>0$ as large as you want. Since variation in $[z,z+\varepsilon]$ is infinite, i.e., $\sup_{\Gamma} S_\Gamma=\infty$ there should be $\Gamma_{\varepsilon}=\{\tilde{z}_0,\cdots,\tilde{z}_m\}$ partition of $[z,z+\varepsilon]$ such that $S_{\Gamma_\varepsilon}=\sum_{i=1}^m|\phi(\tilde{z_i})-\phi(\tilde{z}_{i-1})|>M$. Since we want $(z_n)$ to be monotone, I was thinking in $z_0=\tilde{z}_m,z_1=\tilde{z}_{m-1},\cdots,z_{m-1}=\tilde{z}_1$, now since we want $z_n\to z=z_0$, I thought $z_k=({z_{k-1}+z})/2$, for all $k\geq m$ which works. I did all that, because I wanted to take advantage of $S_{\Gamma_\varepsilon}>M$, because $$\sum_{i=1}^\infty |\phi(z_i)-\phi(z_{i-1})|\geq S_{\Gamma_\varepsilon}>M $$
At this point I have two serious questions:
- Can I conclude that since $$\sum_{i=1}^\infty |\phi(z_i)-\phi(z_{i-1})|>M $$ where $M$ was arbitrarily chosen, that it is infinite? I asked this because If I change $M$ then the partition $\Gamma_\varepsilon$ chance as well, and therefore the sequence, in order to have the "$>M$".
- The reason why $$\sum_{i=1}^\infty |\phi(z_i)-\phi(z_{i-1})|\geq S_{\Gamma_\varepsilon} \ \ (**) $$ is based on a question that I have asked here: Triangle inequality infinite terms $|a-b|\leq \sum_{i=1}^\infty|x_{i}-x_{i-1}|$ but the main difference is that, as $i\to \infty$, we have $z_i\to z$ but there is no reason for $\phi(z_i)\to \phi(z)$. If $\phi(z_i)\to \phi(z)$ were true, then ( ** ) is clearly true.
If someone can bring solutions is ok, but I'm also interested on understand if I made mistakes, so I can correct my thinking. This is an independent learning.