Is the following result true?
If $i^4 = 1$, $(i^4)^{1/4} = 1^{1/4}$, and$i = 1$, then won't it disprove $i = (-1)^{1/2}$?
If no, give a proper reason? Can this be a contradiction to complex numbers?
Is the following result true?
If $i^4 = 1$, $(i^4)^{1/4} = 1^{1/4}$, and$i = 1$, then won't it disprove $i = (-1)^{1/2}$?
If no, give a proper reason? Can this be a contradiction to complex numbers?
No, because you cannot use the usual rules on exponents when you are working with complex numbers !
The definition $a^b = \underbrace{a \times \dots \times a}_{b \text{ times}}$ is always valid if $b$ is a positive integer, but in order to define what $a^{\frac 1 4}$ means, you need to find something else !
When working over the positive, real numbers, a way to define $a^{\frac 1 b}$ for some positive integer means is to say that it is the only positive real $x$ such that $x^b = a$. However, when working over the complex numbers, this $x$ is no longer unique, because there are non-trivial roots of the unity (numbers that are not $1$, but one of their powers is equal to $1$).
(If you know what the exponential function is) An even more general way to define exponentiation is to say that $x^\alpha = \exp(\alpha \ln(x))$ for any positive, real number $x$. However, this definition also fails terribly when $x$ is a complex number, as there is no "nice" way of extending $\ln$ to the complex numbers.
In short: the rules have changed, you have to be very careful when manipulating complex numbers along with exponents.