There is a cool argument borrowed from representation theory to calculate the eigenvectors of a circulant matrix $A$: in these matrices, each column is obtained from the previous one by shifting to the right its elements. In the shift, the last element goes back to the beginning. Formally, let $R$ by the permutation matrix that sends $e_i$ to $e_{i+1}$ for $i=1, 2,3$ and $e_4$ to $e_1$. Let also $A_i$ be the $i$-th column of $A$. The fact that $A$ is circulant formally writes as $A_{i+1} = RA_i$ for $i=1,2,3$ and $A_1 = R A_3$.
Recipe. Suppose $A$ is a 4x4 circulant matrix. Suppose the first row is $(v_1, v_2, v_3, v_4)$. If $i^2 = -1$, then its complex eigenvalues are:
$$ v_1+v_2+v_3+v_4$$
$$(v_1-v_3) +i(v_2-v_4) $$
$$v_1-v_2+v_3-v_4$$
$$(v_1- v_3) -i(v_2-v_4) $$
In your case you get $2,-2,-2,-2$.
Upshot. By the end of the answer you will know how to generalize this to higher dimensions, and I highly recommend you to do this exercise.
Proof. The key observation is the following: being circulant implies $AR = RA$. Indeed, for any $i = 1,2,3$ we have
$$ A R e_i = A e_{i+1} = A_{i+1} = R A_i = RA e_i $$
and the same holds for $i=4$. Since $AR,RA$ coincide on a basis, they are equal.
How the hell this fits into the eigenvalue problem? Firstly, notice that $R$ is diagonalizable, and its eigenvectors are
$$z_1 =(1,1,1,1)$$
$$z_2 = (1,i,i^2, i^3)$$
$$z_3 =(1,-1, 1, -1)$$
$$z_4 = (1,-i,-1, i)$$
where $i^2=-1$.Indeed:
$$ Rz_1 = R(1,1,1,1) = (1,1,1,1) = \lambda_1 z_1 = z_1$$
$$ Rz_2 = R(1,i,-1,-i) = (-i,1,i,-1) = -i(1,i,-1,-i) = \lambda_2 z_2 = -i z_2 $$
$$ R z_3 = R(1,-1,1,-1) = (-1,1,-1,1) = - (1,-1,1,-1) = \lambda_3 z_3 = - z_3 $$
$$ R z_4 = R(1,-i,-1, i) = (i,1,-i,-1) = i(1,-i,-1,i) = \lambda_4 z_4 = i z_4$$
Secondly, if we compute $AR =RA$ in $z_i$ we get that $\lambda_i Az_i = R(A z_i)$. This means that $Az_i$ is an eigenvector of $R$ relative to $\lambda_i$; but there is essentially just one eigenvector relative to $\lambda_i$, so $A z_i$ must be a multiple scalar of $z_i$! This is a very tricky passage. We conclude that $z_i$ is also an eigenvector of $A$, and since we have found a basis of eigenvectors we are done with our search.
We finish with the explicit computation. Since $z_i$ has a 1 in the first component, if we have that $A z_i = \mu_i z_i$, then by looking at the first component we get that $v \cdot z_i = \mu_i$, where $v=(v_1, v_2, v_3, v_4)$. If you look closer to the expressions in the recipe, you will see that the formulas are exactly $v \cdot z_1, v \cdot z_2, v \cdot z_3, v \cdot z_4$.
\left( \begin{array}{rrrr} 1 & -1 & -1 & -1 \ 1 & 1 & -1 & -1 \ 1 & 0 & 2 & -1 \ 1 & 0 & 0 & 3 \ \end{array} \right). $$ – Will Jagy Jan 12 '21 at 20:10