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it is well known: if $F_{1}=1,F_{2}=1$,and $F_{n+1}=F_{n}+F_{n-1}$.use $$F_{m+n}=F_{m}F_{n+1}+F_{m-1}F_{n}$$ I can prove $(F_{m},F_{n})=F_{(m,n)}$

also I have solve this following problem $a_{1}=a_{2}=1$,and $p,q$ be postive integer,and such $a_{n+2}=pa_{n+1}+qa_{n}$ if $$p=1\Longleftrightarrow (a_{m},a_{n})=a_{(m,n)}$$ proof:since $$a_{3}=p+q,a_{4}=p^2+pq+q,a_{5}=p^3+p^2q+2pq+q^2,a_{6}=p^4+p^3q+3p^2q+2pq^2+q^2$$ if $(a_{m},a_{n})=a_{(m,n)}$ so $$1=a_{(3,4)}=(a_{3},a_{4})=(p+q,p^2+pq+q)\Longrightarrow (p,q)=1$$ and note $a_{3}=(a_{3},a_{6})\Longrightarrow a_{3}|a_{6}$,so $$(p+q)|(p^2q+q^2)=q(p+q)+pq(p-1)$$ so $p=1$

and other hand we if $p=1$,use 1 we have $$a_{m+n}=a_{m+1}a_{n}+qa_{m}a_{n-1}$$ and it is easy to show $(a_{n+2},a_{n+1})=(qa_{n},a_{n+1})=(a_{n},a_{n+1})$ because $(a_{n+2},q)=(a_{n+1},q)=\cdots=(1,q)=1$ so we have$(a_{n+1},a_{n})=1$, then $$(a_{m+n},a_{n})=(a_{m}a_{n+1}+qa_{m-1}a_{n},a_{n})=(a_{m},a_{n})=\cdots=(a_{(m,n)},a_{(m,n)})=a_{(m,n)}$$ then we have $$(a_{m},a_{n})=a_{(m,n)}$$

My question: let $a,b,x,y$ be postive integers,and sequence $\{a_{n}\}$ such $a_{1}=a,a_{2}=b$,and $$a_{n+1}=xa_{n}+ya_{n-1}$$ find the $a,b,x,y$ such $(a_{m},a_{n})=a_{(m,n)}$

math110
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  • Related topics are studied in https://www.emis.de/journals/JIS/VOL20/He/he59.pdf See also https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2145404/the-gcd-operator-commutes-with-functions-defined-by-linear-recurrence-relatio – Gerry Myerson Jan 11 '21 at 03:36
  • @GerryMyerson,Hello,I read this paper,and I don't see the end result of this problem – math110 Jan 11 '21 at 03:52
  • @gero I didn't say the result was there; I said the paper studied topics related to the problem. In particular, there is a remark in the paper which relates divisibility sequences to sequences with the gcd property. It is often useful, when studying a problem, to learn about related problems. – Gerry Myerson Jan 11 '21 at 04:05
  • Conjecture: The property holds iff $b = ax$ and $(y,x) = 1$. Those are necessary properties by looking at the first fourth terms, and I haven't found a counterexample in the first terms of the first sequences. – AnilCh Jan 11 '21 at 14:26
  • Have you looked at the links I gave, function? – Gerry Myerson Jan 12 '21 at 12:02
  • It's not polite to ignore people who are trying to help you. – Gerry Myerson Jan 13 '21 at 12:34
  • @GerryMyerson,I have find a paper disscuss this question.Thanks.see P.HORAK and L.SKULA 1983 A characterization of the second-order strong divisibility sequences:https://www.mscs.dal.ca/FQ/Scanned/23-2/horak.pdf – math110 Jan 14 '21 at 04:17
  • Good. If that enables you to solve the problem, let me encourage you to write up the solution and post it here as an answer, so that we have it on file for the next person who comes along with this question. – Gerry Myerson Jan 14 '21 at 04:22
  • You could do that today. – Gerry Myerson Jan 15 '21 at 11:58

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