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Two dice are rolled. Let X be the lower of the two scores and Y be the larger of the scores. What is the conditional probability P(Y=6|X=4)?

Aizen
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  • where are you stuck? can you write out the definition of a conditional probability? – angryavian Jan 09 '21 at 19:45
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    Given the (strictly) lower value is $X=4$, there are only two equally likely cases: $Y=5$ or $Y=6$. And so..... – David G. Stork Jan 09 '21 at 19:48
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    Given X=4, Y must be 5 or 6. However I am not sure of the probability of both outcomes? Would it be 1/2 since Y can only be of the two, 5 or 6? Or 1/36? – Aizen Jan 09 '21 at 20:06
  • @angryavian It would be P(Y=6 and X=4) / P(X=4), however I am confused on how to find the probabilities. – Aizen Jan 09 '21 at 20:09
  • We are not told that $Y$ is necessarily strictly larger than $X$... It is possible for both dice to be showing $4$ and as such there are not just the two cases... there is also the additional case to consider. The probability is not $\frac{1}{2}$. The probability is not $\frac{1}{3}$ either... it requires a more careful analysis. – JMoravitz Jan 10 '21 at 02:07
  • @DavidG.Stork "And so..." should continue "...after considering also the possibility that $X$ does not need to be strictly lower than $Y$..." but this is not at all implied by your comment. Your comment is misleading at best, and incorrect at worst. See my answer below. – JMoravitz Jan 10 '21 at 02:16
  • JMoravitz: No. The OP writes "Let X be the lower of the two scores and Y be the larger of the scores." This makes it absolutely clear that the case $X=Y$ is excluded from consideration. It is not correct to ever say that $4$ is the lower and $4$ is the larger of the scores, of course. – David G. Stork Jan 10 '21 at 02:19
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    The minimum of the set ${4}$ happens to equal the maximum of the set ${4}$. It is incorrect to say that the minimum of a set is always strictly less than the maximum of the same set. Letting $A$ be the result of the first die (uniformly distributed over ${1,2,3,4,5,6}$) and $B$ the result of the second die (identically independently distributed to the first), the problem has $X=\min(A,B)$ and $Y=\max(A,B)$. There is nothing incorrect about calling $X$ the "lower" and $Y$ the "larger" here. – JMoravitz Jan 10 '21 at 02:21
  • It is simply incorrect to state—as you do—that $4$ is "larger" of the scores $(4,4)$. Note that OP states "larger"... not (as you incorrectly assume) the maximum of the set $(4,4)$. – David G. Stork Jan 10 '21 at 02:23
  • In colloquial language for board games... you commonly hear things like "Roll three dice. Take the largest result and do such and such." You never see clarifications talking about the case where multiple or all dice happened to tie for largest. Take for example Risk. If the attacker rolls three $6$'s... the "highest" die roll is a $6$ and the "second highest" die roll is also a $6$. You don't run into a scenario where because no die roll is strictly higher than any other that there is not a valid "highest" amount to treat as your attack value. – JMoravitz Jan 10 '21 at 02:31
  • This same language and interpretation occurs commonly throughout mathematics for problems like these. See here and here among surely hundreds more... It is absurd to think that the language used here has the connotation that we are conditioning on the event that the dice show different values. Yes, $\Pr(Y=6\mid X=4\wedge X\neq Y)=\dfrac{1}{2}$. – JMoravitz Jan 10 '21 at 02:34
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    I understand the reasoning, in my answer have taken it upon myself to assume $Y > X$ because this is the way I interpreted the language used, perhaps the OP can adjust their question to reflect if they mean strict or the possibility of them being equal. . – oliverjones Jan 10 '21 at 02:37

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I am taking the assumption that $Y > X$ always based off of wording in OP's statement: 'Let X be the lower of the two scores and Y be the larger of the scores.'

We are given the information that $Y > X$ and now we want $P(Y = 6 \mid X=4)$.

This takes us to a subset of the sample space: $\{ 5,6\} \subset \{1,2,3,4,5,6\}$. Either value is just as likely; namely, it reduces to $Y$ is uniform over $\{5,6\}$ given this new information thus $\displaystyle P(Y=6 \mid X=4) = \frac{1}{2}$.

More generally,

If we are given a probability space $(\Omega, \mathcal{F}, \mathbb{P})$ if we have a $B \in \mathcal{F}$ such that $\mathbb{P}(B) > 0$.

Then we may define a new probability space: $(\Omega, \mathcal{F}, \mathbb{Q})$ where $\forall A \in \mathcal{F}, \mathbb{Q}(A) = \mathbb{P}(A \mid B)$.

Since we know $Y > X$ and $\mathbb{P}(X=4) = \frac{1}{6} > 0 $ we can do the above transformation to a new space.

Additional note: Sometimes trying to solve by $\displaystyle P(A\mid B) = \frac{P(A,B)}{P(B)} $ doesn't work so well when there's a dependence. So it is better to consider what does $P(A \mid B)$ mean given some information that relates $A$ and $B$.

How this relates to the above is let $A : = Y = 6$ and $B : = X = 4$ then we should be using $P(A,B) = P(A\mid B)P(B)$ form of the above since we have a dependency here; namely, that $Y > X$.

oliverjones
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  • We are not told that $Y>X$ in every case... it is possible for both dice to show $4$ in which case $Y=X=4$ – JMoravitz Jan 10 '21 at 02:08
  • No... but we are told that $X$ is the "larger" of the two values. If there is a case where one value is not "larger," then such cases cannot be included. Please re-read the OP's explicit condition of "larger" (not "maximum of the set," as you mistakenly assume). – David G. Stork Jan 10 '21 at 02:28
  • oliverjones has it correct (+1)... JMoravitz is simply incorrect. – David G. Stork Jan 10 '21 at 02:46
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The other answers and comments are incorrect as they falsely assume that $Y$ must be strictly greater than $X$ in every occasion, however that is invalid. It is perfectly acceptable for $Y$ to equal $X$ in the event that both dice show the same value.

To clarify and formalize, I am working with the assumption that $A$ and $B$ are independent random variables, each of which uniformly distributed over $\{1,2,3,4,5,6\}$ and $X=\min(A,B)$ and $Y=\max(A,B)$... that is $A$ is the result of the "first die" and $B$ the result of the "second die", that $X$ is colloquially the result of the "smaller die" and $Y$ the result of the "larger die" (yes, even in the event that $A=B$)

Let us imagine that the dice are both differently colored or that they are rolled in sequence, or similar... e.g. one blue and one red die. There are $36$ equally likely different outcomes.

$\Pr(Y=6\mid X=4) = \dfrac{\Pr(Y=6\cap X=4)}{\Pr(X=4)}$

The probability that the larger die is a $6$ and the smaller die is a $4$, well that corresponds to the two outcomes where the red die is $6$ and the blue die is $4$ or to the outcome that the red die is $4$ and the blue die is $6$. We have then that $\Pr(Y=6\cap X=4)=\dfrac{2}{36}$

The probability that the smaller die is a $4$ is going to be the probability that both dice are greater than or equal to $4$ while not being the case that both dice are simultaneously greater than or equal to $5$ (as then $4$ would not have been the minimum). There are $3\times 3$ outcomes corresponding to both dice being greater than or equal to $4$ and $2\times 2$ outcomes corresponding to both dice being greater than or equal to $5$. As such, there are $3\times 3-2\times 2=9-4=5$ outcomes corresponding to the minimum of the dice rolls being a $4$ and so $\Pr(X=4)=\dfrac{5}{36}$

This used the general result that $\Pr(X= k) = \Pr(X\geq k)-\Pr(X>k)$

Combining the results, the probability is then:

$$\Pr(Y=6\mid X=4)=\dfrac{\frac{2}{36}}{\frac{5}{36}}=\dfrac{2}{5}=0.4$$

JMoravitz
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  • This answer is simply incorrect because @JMoravitz mistakenly thinks that the maximum of the set $(4,4)$ (i.e., $4$) is "larger" than then other value in the set (or itself). The OP states explicitly larger —not "is the maximum of the set." – David G. Stork Jan 10 '21 at 02:25
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There is serious confusion about a basic condition of the problem. The OP is explicitly interested in this case: "Let X be the lower of the two scores and Y be the larger of the scores." This a fortiori excludes cases where neither of the values is higher, nor lower, e.g., cases of the form $(n,n)$.

What could be clearer?

Imagine the OP wrote: "Two dice are rolled. Let X be the odd score and Y be the even score."

You simply cannot come back and say: "What about the case $(4,4)$?" or "What about the case $(3,3)$?" "What about the case $(4,6)$?"

Those cases are explicitly excluded from consideration. Hence any calculation of the probability that involves those excluded cases would of course be in error.

Imagine the OP wrote: "Two dice are rolled. Let $X$ be a roll above 3.5 and $Y$ be a roll below 3.5. What is the average difference between the rolls?"

You cannot come back and say "But what about $(5,5)$?" "What about $(2,2)$?" Those cases are explicitly excluded.

Nobody is saying that you will never roll a $(4,4)$ or $(4,6)$, etc., just that this is not part of the question. Just as a question about the rolls being relatively prime, or perfect numbers, or...

Improperly including cases such as $(4,4)$ leads to such confusion. Suppose you roll a red die and green die and get $(4,4)$ and hear: "Tell me the color of the single die that is larger than the other." A perfectly reasonable request. (It would be a deliberate mis-representation to change this clear question to a different one, such as "Tell the color of the largest." It would be to deliberately exclude the key word "than.")

Back to the explicit case asked by the OP: We are told explicitly that one of the rolls is "larger" and the other "smaller." This is of course not the same as "maximum of the set." It is of course not correct to say that $4$ is "larger of" the other element of the set $(4,4)$ and that $4$ is "smaller of"... (um... which?)... just that $4$ is the maximum value. The author was clear in using "larger of" and any attempt at an answer that deliberately tries to negate those clear words is confused and in error.

Big difference.

  • If I heard "Two dice are rolled, let $X$ be the odd score and Y be the even score" or "Let $X$ be a roll above $3.5$ and $Y$ be a roll below $3.5$" I say that the question makes no sense because $X$ and $Y$ are improperly defined in the cases that neither roll fell into one of the stated categories. The question should have been worded "Two dice are rolled. Supposing that one were even and the other were odd, letting $X$ be the even number and $Y$ be the odd number..." or similar, stating the supposition explicitly as a part of the hypothesis for the problem. – JMoravitz Jan 10 '21 at 03:08
  • If I were asked "Tell the color of the largest" and both happened to have tied, I would reply "both the red and green dice tied for largest" – JMoravitz Jan 10 '21 at 03:13
  • The independent third party oliverjones agrees with me... so I'll leave it at that. (Over and out.) – David G. Stork Jan 10 '21 at 03:14