Wikipedia said
A constant function such as $f(x) = π$ is a rational function since constants are polynomials. The function itself is rational, even though the value of $f(x)$ is irrational for all x.
But the definition stated: A function ${\displaystyle f(x)}$ is called a rational function if and only if it can be written in the form $${\displaystyle f(x) = {\frac {P(x)}{Q(x)}}}$$ where ${\displaystyle P\,}$ and ${\displaystyle Q\,}$ are polynomial functions of ${\displaystyle x\,}$ and ${\displaystyle Q\,}$ is not the zero function. The domain of ${\displaystyle f\,}$ is the set of all values of ${\displaystyle x\,}$ for which the denominator ${\displaystyle Q(x)\,}$ is not zero.
We can rewrite $f(x)=\pi$ as $f(x)=\frac{\pi}{1}$
I could agree if $1$ is a polynomial since it's a non-zero constant function that is a polynomial of degree 0. But $\pi$ is a trancendental number here. I mean, i never saw a polynomial with a constant of $\pi$. Can you explain it to me?
Thanks.