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Let $A$ be a ring and $M$ be free $A$-module of rank $n$. Let $m_1,...,m_n$ be basis of $M$. We create elements $n_j=\sum_{i\in n}a_{ij}m_i$. Let $N=An_1+...+ An_n$. Then the index $[M:N]=det(a_{ij})$. Can anyone help me to proceed with the proof of this here?

Milne's notes has described one method. Let $A=\mathbb{Z}$, then we can find $a_i∈\mathbb{Z}$, s.t. $f′_i=a_ie′_i$, $e′_i,f′_i$ being bases of $M,N$ respectively, (which I am not sure how). Now let, $(e′_i)=E(e_i)$ and $f′_i=F(f_i)⇒(f_i)=F^{−1}AE(e_i)⇒det(F^{−1}AE)=∏_ia_i=[M:N]$. Here $A$ is the $diag(a_i)$ matrix..The last step is also doubtful to me as why $∏_ia_i=[M:N]$, Also why $det(E)=det(F)=1$. Can anyone help? $E,F$ is the transformation matrix of $e_i$ to $e_i'$ and $f_i$ to $f_i'$ respectively.

  • We need some assumptions on the $a_{ij}$, i.e. if lets say all $a_{ij}$ are zero, this is not true. If $A$ is the ring of integers a hint might be to use some normal form like the Smith normal form, see here for a solution. How is that index even defined in the general case (as far as I know it is defined as the ideal generated by the determinants of the matrices representing the bases) – leoli1 Jan 01 '21 at 19:48
  • Milne's notes has described one method. Let $A=\mathbb{Z}$, then we can find $a_i\in \mathbb{Z}$, s.t. $f_i'=a_ie_i'$, $e_i',f_i'$ being bases of $M,N$ respectively, (which I am not sure how). Now let, $(e_i')=E(e_i)$ and $f_i'=F(f_i)\Rightarrow (f_i)=F^{-1}AE(e_i)\Rightarrow det(F^{-1}AE)=\prod_i a_i=[M:N]$. Here $A$ is the $diag(a_i)$ matrix..The last step is also doubtful to me as why $\prod_i a_i=[M:N]$, Also why $det(E)=det(F)=1$. Can you help? – roydiptajit Jan 02 '21 at 05:53

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I assume you want $A=\mathbb Z$ here since $[M:N]\in\mathbb Z\cup\{\infty\}$ while $\det(a_{ij})\in A$. Furthermore, we will need to assume that the $n_j$'s are linearly independent (otherwise $[M:N]=\infty$ while $\det(a_{ij})=0$), i.e. we are assuming that $N$ is free (submodules of free $\mathbb Z$-modules are always free) of rank $n$ over $\mathbb Z$. With these assumptions, my answer is basically an expanded version of what you read in Milne's notes.

Since $N\subset M$ are both free of rank $n$ over $\mathbb Z$, the structure theorem for modules over a PID tells us that there exists a basis $m_1',\dots,m_n'$ of $M$ along with scalers $c_1,\dots,c_n\in\mathbb Z$ such that $c_1m_1',\dots,c_nm_n'\in M$ form a basis for $N\subset M$. Using these bases, the inclusion $N\hookrightarrow M$ is given by the diagonal matrix $\mathrm{diag}(c_1,\dots,c_n)$. Since $(a_{ij})$ represents this inclusion in another basis, we have $$\prod_{i=1}^nc_i=\det\mathrm{diag}(c_1,\dots,c_n)=\det(a_{ij}).$$ At the same time, with this nice choice of bases for $M,N$, one sees that $$\frac MN\cong\prod_{i=1}^n\frac{\mathbb Z}{c_i\mathbb Z}$$ so also $$\left|\frac MN\right|=\prod_{i=1}^nc_i=\det(a_{ij}).$$

All that remains is to explain where we get this choice of bases from. We have $N\subset M$ free $\mathbb Z$-modules of the same finite rank $n$. We want to construct a basis $e_1,\dots,e_n$ of $M$ along with elements $a_1,\dots,a_n\in\mathbb Z$ such that $a_1e_1,\dots,a_ne_n$ is a basis for $N$.

One argues by induction on $n=\mathrm{rank}(M)$. For any homomorphism $\lambda:M\to\mathbb Z$, let $I_\lambda=\lambda(N)\subset\mathbb Z$ be the ideal capaturing the image of $\lambda\vert_N$. Choose $\lambda_1$ such that $I_{\lambda_1}\subset\mathbb Z$ is maximal among $\{I_\lambda\}_{\lambda:M\to\mathbb Z}$, write $I_{\lambda_1}=a_1\mathbb Z$, and choose $x_1\in N$ such that $\lambda_1(x_1)=a_1$. Now, briefly consider any basis $f_1,\dots,f_n$ of $M$ with dual basis $\newcommand\dual[1]{#1^\vee}\dual f_1,\dots,\dual f_n$ of $\dual M=\mathrm{Hom}(M,\mathbb Z)$ (so $\dual f_i(f_j)=\delta_{ij}$); if we write $x_1=\sum_{i=1}^nb_if_i$, then $$b_i=\dual f_i(x_1)\in(a_1)$$ by maximality of $I_{\lambda_1}$, so $a_1\mid b_i$ for all $i$. Hence, $x_1=a_1e_1$ for some $e_1\in M$ (in particular, $\lambda_1(e_1)=1$). We claim now that $$M=\mathbb Ze_1\oplus\ker\lambda_1.$$ Indeed, for $m\in M$, one has $m=\lambda_1(m)e_1+(m-\lambda_1(m)e_1)\in\mathbb Ze_1+\ker\lambda_1.$ At the same time, if $m\in\mathbb Ze_1\cap\ker\lambda_1$, then $m=\lambda_1(m)e_1=0$ which shows $M=\mathbb Ze_1\oplus\ker\lambda_1$ as claimed. The inductive hypothesis then gives a basis $e_2,\dots,e_n$ of $\ker\lambda_1$ along with $a_2,\dots,a_n\in\mathbb Z$ such that $a_2e_2,\dots,a_ne_n$ is a basis of $N\cap\ker\lambda_1$, and so we win. Our desired bases are $e_1,e_2,\dots,e_n$ and $a_1e_1,a_2,e_2,\dots,a_ne_n.$

Niven
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  • Thanks for your reply.. I have one question why $N$ is also of rank $n$. As $\mathbb{Z}$ is noetherian, I get $\mathbb{Z}$- module is also noetherian, so every submuodues are finitely generated. But why rank is $n$? – roydiptajit Jan 02 '21 at 08:02
  • I may not have been explicit enough, but I added this as an assumption in the first paragraph. If $N$ is not of rank $n$, then the claim is false. If $N$ has rank smaller than $n$, then there would be some linear dependence among the $n_j$'s, causing $\det(a_{ij})=0$. At the same time $\mathrm{rank}(M/N)=\mathrm{rank}(M)-\mathrm{rank}(N)\ge1$ so $|M/N|=\infty$ in this case. – Niven Jan 02 '21 at 14:40
  • I also think Milne assumed this, otherwise this would be false.. But it is not mentioned anywhere in the notes.. But if this is the case then $N\subset M$ should also be false? – roydiptajit Jan 03 '21 at 09:26
  • If I am understanding your last sentence correctly, you are worried that $M$ can't have a proper submodule of the same rank? This is true for vector spaces, but not true for $R$-modules in general. A simple example is $2\mathbb Z\subset\mathbb Z$ is a rank 1 proper submodule of a rank 1 $\mathbb Z$-module. – Niven Jan 03 '21 at 16:59
  • Thanks.. great.. – roydiptajit Jan 03 '21 at 18:05