I've been going through Spivak's calculus and in it spivak states that for a function $f$ to be continuous on a closed interval $[a,b]$ the function is said to be continuous at the end points if $\lim_\limits{x\to{a^+}}f(x)=f(a)$ And $\lim_\limits{x\to{b^-}}f(x)=b$
However can the same reasoning apply to the derivative of a function i know that limits are based off taking limits from any direction within the domain of the function that is $x$ lies in the domain of $f$ so for example if I had the function $f:[a,b]\longrightarrow \mathbb{R}$ when calculating the derivative at the end point for example at b since f is not defined for points greater than b is it true to say that the derivative of the function at b is the left handed derivative of b That is $$ f'(b)=\lim_{h\to 0^-}\frac{f(b+h)-f(b)}{h} $$ Thanks in advance.