Take a polynomial with integer coefficients $p(x)$. Some of them, like $p(x) = x^2$ or $p(x) = x^3-x$ produce very few prime numbers, while some others $p(x) = x^2-x+41$ seem to produce lots of them.
If you start from a simple example $p(x) = ax+b$ with $a,b$ coprime, since primes are evenly distributed among mod a classes, we will have that the probability of $p(x)$ being prime is the same as the probability of $x$ being prime. Do you think this is true for generic polynomials, or there is some intrinsic bias in increasing the degree toward being more composite/ more prime? For me that I am not expert, this seems an incredibly hard question. I don't want necessarily to be quantitative, but for example a weak formulation could be
$$ \lim_{n \to \infty } \frac{ \log |\{x\le n: p(x) \text{ is prime } \}|}{\log(n) } = 1 $$