0

I'm having some trouble proving the following statement:

$$\forall n\in \mathbb N, \ \ 2^n |(2n)!$$

The first thing that came to mind was mathematical induction but this is my first time using it with this kind of the question (with divisibility instead of an equality/inequality) and I'm not quite sure how to proceed. How can I prove this? Should I use the properties of the divisibility of two numbers and manipulate $2^n |(2n)!$ until I get $2^{n+1} |(2(n+1))!$ or should I use the fact that $\exists k \in \mathbb Z: (2n)! = k2^n $ and try to conclude that $\exists l\in \mathbb Z:\ (2(n+1)) = l 2^{n+1}!$ ?

1 Answers1

1

Induction works best.

For $n=1$, $2^1 =2$ divides $2!=2$.

Suppose $2^n$ divides $(2n)!$. Then consider $2^{n+1}=2\cdot 2^n$. By induction hypthesis, $2^n$ divides $(2n)!$ and $(2(n+1))! =(2n)! \cdot [((2n)!+1)\cdot ((2n)^!+2)\cdots (2(n+1))!]$. The latter partial product $[\ldots]$ contains obviously a factor which is divisible by $2$. I.e., $2^{n+1}$ divides $(2(n+1))!$ as claimed.

Wuestenfux
  • 20,964