in $a\in\mathbb{N}$ we know that $x>1$. How can I prove the question above? I see the proof from this question, $x+1$ is always invertible in $\Bbb Z_{x^3}$.
But is the answer the same when the sign is just flipped?
in $a\in\mathbb{N}$ we know that $x>1$. How can I prove the question above? I see the proof from this question, $x+1$ is always invertible in $\Bbb Z_{x^3}$.
But is the answer the same when the sign is just flipped?
$x^3-1 = (x-1)(x^2+x+1)$ , we know that $(x^2+x+1)$ is never $0$ since $0<1<(1+x+x^2)$.
Later, $x^3 = 1+ (x-1)(x^2+x+1)$, so $$1+ (x-1)(x^2+x+1) \equiv 0 ~~{ mod}(x^3) $$ $$(x-1)(x^2+x+1) \equiv -1 ~~{ mod}(x^3) $$ $$(x-1)(-x^2-x-1) \equiv 1 ~~{ mod}(x^3) $$ so $x-1$ is always invertible.
A Better one: Since $x^3 = 1+ (x-1)(x^2+x+1)$, then $$x^3 + (x-1)(-x^2-x-1) = 1$$ so, for Bezout's theorem, $x^3$ and $(x-1)$ are always coprime, and hence, $(x-1)$ is invertible .
Note: This observation was taken from one answer of the link attached to question.