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I've seen this integral on a math page : $$\int_0^{\pi/4} \ln\left(\ln\left(\cot\left(x\right)\right)\right) {d}x.$$ And I tried to solve it, like Vardi's integral, by substituting $u=\ln\left(\cot(x)\right)$

The bounds are : $u\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\ln\left(\cot\left( \frac{\pi}{4}\right)\right)=\ln(1)=0$ and $u(0)=\ln\left(\cot\left( 0\right)\right)=+\infty$ and this explains the minus sign we'll have it when we'll substitute $$u=\ln\left(\cot(x)\right) \Longleftrightarrow du=-\frac{dx}{\cos x\sin x}.$$

The problem now is just to simplify this expression I did a lot of attempts but I didn't get something ! I think that the substitution is false, any tips or thoughts ?

euler_med
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