I want to prove that:$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)dx=\int_{-\infty}^\infty f\left(x-\frac1x\right)dx$$ And use the result of this proof to evaluate:$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{x^2}{x^4+1}dx$$
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1Review this question. – Axion004 Dec 10 '20 at 04:01
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Thank you both so much! That really helps! – IDon'tKnow Dec 10 '20 at 04:59
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Here is how to apply it to $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{x^2}{x^4+1}dx = \int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{1}{(x-\frac1x)^2+2}dx = \int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{1}{x^2+2}dx=\frac\pi{\sqrt2} $$

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