Expanding my comment above. Assume you have a differentiable implicit
function $F(x,y)=0$. Let $y=f(x)$ denote the function such that $F(x,f(x))\equiv 0$. This function $f(x)$ does not need to be explicitly known, as pointed out in Christian Blatter's answer.
If you differentiate both sides of $F(x,y)=0$ and apply the chain rule,
you get the following total derivative with respect to $x$:
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}F}{\mathrm{d}x}=\frac{\partial F}{\partial x}+\frac{%
\partial F}{\partial y}\frac{\mathrm{d}y}{\mathrm{d}x}\equiv 0.\qquad (1)$$
Solving $(1)$ for $\frac{\mathrm{d}y}{\mathrm{d}x}$, gives you the following
formula
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}y}{\mathrm{d}x}=-\frac{\partial F}{\partial x}/\frac{%
\partial F}{\partial y}.\qquad (2)$$
For $F(x,y)=x^{2}\cos (y)+\sin (2y)-xy$, since the partial derivatives are
$$\frac{\partial F }{\partial x}=2x\cos y-y\quad\text{ and }\qquad \frac{\partial F }{\partial y}
=-x^{2}\sin y+2\cos 2y-x,$$
the derivative of $y=f(x)$ is
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}y}{\mathrm{d}x}=-\frac{2x\cos y-y}{-x^{2}\sin y+2\cos 2y-x}.$$
As a final note I say that the way I presented the computation is the same as it is explained in Advanced Calculus book by Angus Taylor. I have seen this computation done here many times without considering partial derivatives explicitly, but it is essential the same as when evaluating those partial derivatives.