I have played around with this question for a bit, but my answer doesn't feel right. I'm not happy with how I converted the binomial. it feels a bit hand-wavy. Is there any way I can make this proof better?
Let's say that we have two teams that are both size $n$. Let's call one team the Blue team and the other team Red. We are going to send a mixture of Blue and Red players to an event (they can also send no one). There are $\binom{2n}{a}$ ways we can select players, but if we want to only send an even sum of players then $a$ must be even. Lets rewrite it as $\binom{2n}{2k}$. Considering all possible $k$-values tells us that the total ways to send an even sum of randomly composed Blue and Red players is $$\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{2n}{2k}$$ Since both teams have $n$ players, we know that there are $2^{2n}$ subgroups that could be sent. But again we only want to consider even groups so we divide by 2 to get rid of all odd groups. Thus we have
$$2^{2n}/2 = 2^{2n-1}$$
Both methods give the same result.