I am not a student of mathematics, and I have never studied number theory. I was looking at RSA recently. Euler Theorem is used here. I don't quiet understand $1(mod\quad n)$ in Euler Theorem$a^{\phi (n)}≡1\pmod n$. Are $1\pmod n$ and $1\; mod\; n$ the same ? Isn't $1\; mod\; n$ always one?
Why is the $ed=1\pmod n$ equal to $d=e^{-1}\;mod\;\phi(n)$?