I am trying to understand the relationship between a simplicial complex and its corresponding Riemann manifold. Reading this post I understand that a simplicial complex is homeomorphic to a corresponding manifold, though I am not sure under what conditions this homeomorphism property exists or fails.
So the first question is:
- Does each simplicial complex correspond or map to some underlying manifold--in my case a Riemann manifold, or is the mapping only up to some homeomorphism?
But the real question is as follows.
- If a simplicial complex is homeomorphic to some corresponding manifold, then do geodesics between points on a simplicial complex correspond to geodesics on the underlying manifold? In other words, does the simplicial complex preserve distances vis-a-vis the corresponding manifold. Perhaps the distances are preserved up to some homeomorphism as well.
Any clarification would be appreciated. Let me know if I any additional details is needed for this question. Differential topology is not my forte, as I come from a stats background.