Let $\Pi \in \Sigma^\infty$ be the decimal representation of $\pi$ where $\Sigma=\{0..9\}$. It is not known whether $\Pi$ contains each natural number. On the other hand, no number is known not to occur in $\Pi$. (Hope I've got that right)
First of all: is this property unique to $\pi$ or do all irrational numbers share it? UPDATE: As pointed out by Brian and MJD, irrationality is completely unrelated: 1. there are irrational numbers which are known not to contain all numbers in their representation (Brian) 2. there are irrational numbers whose representation contains all numbers (MJD).
At any event, I think it should be much easier to show that almost all numbers are present, i.e. $ \exists N\in\mathbb{N}\forall k>N\exists p\in\Sigma^\star\exists s\in\Sigma^\infty: \Pi=pR(k)s$ where $R:\mathbb{N} \to \Sigma^\star$ maps each number to its decimal representation. So "allmost all" here means all except finitely many.
Has something like this been proven or disproven?
In general I don't think it's possible to construct a non-repetitive stream of symbols $\sigma \in \Sigma^\infty $ that does not contain almost all $w\in\Sigma^\star$ ("almost all" with respect to some enumeration of $\Sigma^\star$). (EDIT: This is possible as Brian points out)