First of all, the statement that you are trying to show is correct in the case that $v^Tu \neq 0$, but the case that $v^Tu = 0$ should be handled separately.
One approach to your problem in the case that $v^Tu \neq 0$ is to simply "guess" what the correct eigenvectors look like. In particular, I claim that if $x$ is orthogonal to $v$, then $x$ is an eigenvector. What is the associated eigenvalue? I also claim that if $x$ is parallel to $u$, then $x$ is an eigenvector. What is the associated eigenvalue?
Because $\operatorname{span}(u)$ and $\{v\}^\perp$ are complementary subspaces, we can then conclude that the operator $A = I - uv^T$ is diagonalizable and that all eigenvalues have been accounted for.
For the case that $v^Tu = 0$, it suffices to note that $[A - I]^2 = 0$. It follows that $A$ has $1$ as its only eigenvalue.