Let $a > 0$ et $f$ defined by $$ f(a) = \sum_{k = 1}^{+ \infty} \frac{1}{1 + (ak)^2} $$ We have
$$ \exists ! a > 0, \sum_{k = 1}^{+ \infty} \frac{1}{1 + (ak)^2} = \frac{1}{2} $$
I want to find $a$. So, I tried several thing :
1 - We know $\frac{1}{1 + x^2} = \arctan'(x)$, so
$$ \frac{1}{2} = f(a) = \sum_{k = 1}^{+ \infty} \arctan'(ak) = \sum_{k = 1}^{+ \infty} \frac{1}{\tan'(\arctan(ak))} $$
because $\arctan(y)' = \frac{1}{\tan'( \arctan(y) )}$. Now $\tan'(x) = \frac{1}{\cos^2(x)}$ so we have to find $a$ s.t
$$ \frac{1}{2} = \sum_{k = 1}^{+ \infty} \cos^2(\arctan(ak)) $$
But I don't how to deal with this sum.
2 - With a computer, I found that $a$ is close to $1.644$ and I conjecture that $a$ could be equal to a number like $ \frac{\pi^2}{6} $. But
$$ f(\frac{\pi^2}{6} ) \approx 0.4977 $$
I guess that $a$ may be a limit of the zeta function. So, I have to prove the following implication
$$ \sum_{k = 1}^{+ \infty} \frac{1}{t^2} = a \Rightarrow \sum_{k = 1}^{+ \infty} \frac{1}{1 + (ak)^2} = \frac{1}{2} $$
But I am not sure if it works.
3 - I guess that we may found $a$ like we prove $ \sum \frac{1}{n^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6} $. But I am not sure if it's work.
Now I am in lack of idea.. so if anyone can give me a hint, I appreciate your help.