I was wondering if it could be proved without using the Chinese remainder theorem, arithmetically.
Thank you
I was wondering if it could be proved without using the Chinese remainder theorem, arithmetically.
Thank you
$2,3$ are relatively prime so $2|(m-n)$, $3|(m-n)$ implies $6|(m-n)$ meaning $m\equiv n \mod 6$.
If $c$ is a common multiple of $a$ and $b$, then $c$ is a multiple of their least common multiple $\operatorname{lcm}(a,b)$.
Apply this to $c=m-n$ and $a=2$ and $b=3$.