I'm currently taking a class about model building in applied math. We spent quite a bit of time on Buckingham $\Pi$ theorem. I understand it on a shallow level. I know how to solve the homework and quiz problems but I just don't understand why it works.
My next big assignment is a presentation and essay. Buckingham's theorem is a big part of it. More specifically, we are given a problem with the following variables:
\begin{array} \hline D & Diameter \\ \hline V & Velocity \\ \hline \rho & Density \\ \hline F & Force \\ \hline n & Revolutions/second \\ \hline g & Acceleration\phantom{-}due\phantom{-}to\phantom{-}gravity \\ \hline \mu & Viscosity \\ \hline \end{array}
We are asked to use Buckingham's theorem to derive the following equation:
$$ F = \rho D^2 v^2 \phi(\frac{nD}{V},\frac{gD}{V^2}, \frac{\mu}{\rho D V})$$
where $\phi$ is a function. I know how to get the answer but I can't tell you why it works. This was fine when it was just homework or quizzes problems but now I have to do a presentation on it. Why does Buckingham's theorem work here? From what I understand it doesn't always work - sometimes it gives you a formula that has no coherent physical meaning. We have to use theory from physics to justify the use of Buckingham's theorem but what would this justification look like? This problem is about a ship and the force of its propeller if that makes a difference. Furthermore, what exactly is the relationship between the equation above and the actual equation from the Buckingham theorem $f(\Pi_1, \Pi_2, \Pi_3, \Pi_4) = 0$?