I thought about using the Chinese Remainder Theorem here as $\gcd(6,8)=2$ and not $1$, but
$$\begin{cases} x = 2 \pmod 6 \\ x = 6 \pmod 8 \end{cases}$$
has indeed a solution.
But right now, I'm stuck with
$$\begin{cases} x = 2 \pmod 6 \\ x = 5 \pmod 8 \end{cases}$$
Which obviously after some calculations does not seem to have an integer solution, but how can I show it more "elegantly", like by using some theorem?