In Horst Herrlich's Topology I, page 117, Statement 4.4.12 the author goes on to prove that product space is metrizable if each component ($\underline X_i$) of the product space is metrizable and the corresp. index set ($I$) is at most countable.
Assuming first the case when $I = N$ is infinitely countable, he then goes on to define such a metric (here each $d_n$ belongs to corresp. $X_n$)
$d((x_n),(y_n)) = max \ \{ \frac 1 n \ d_n(x_n, y_n) | n \in I \}$
If $x = (x_n)$ is element of the product space and $r > 0$, then $\exists m \in N, \forall n \ge m : \frac 1 n < r$
He then goes on to state that it follows:
$S(x,r) = \{ y \in {\displaystyle \prod_{I} X_n} \ | \ d(x,y) < r \ \} = \bigcap \{ p_n^{-1} [S(x_n, n \cdot r)] \ | \ n < m \} \ \ \ [1]$
Here $S(x_n, s) = \{ y \in X_n \ | \ d_n(x_n, y) < s \}$
I really tried to understand but I can't see how [1] just 'follows'. Can someone help in understanding why the equality really holds?
EDIT. Forgot to mention that $ diam \ \underline X_i \le 1$