Let $Y$ be an arbitrary set. There is a natural way in which a family of maps $f_i: X_i → Y$ (for $i ∈ I$) from topological spaces $X_i$ to $Y$ induces a topology on $Y$. Namely, the strong topology induced by the family {$f_i: i ∈ I$} is the finest topology on $Y$ with respect to which all the maps $f_i$ are continuous. The strong topology generalizes the quotient topology and can be thought of as a “dual” concept to the weak topology
Show that a set $V ⊆ Y$ is open in the strong topology induced by $f_i: X_i → Y$ (for $i ∈ I$), if and only if for each $i ∈ I$, the set $f^{−1}_i(V)$ is open in $X_i$.
My attempt:
=>: $f_i$ is continuous, then for every open $V⊆Y$, we have $f_i^{-1}(V)$ is open in $X_i$ for every $i \in I$ (by definition of continuity).
<=: $V = f_i(f_i^{-1})(V) = f_i^{-1}(f_i(V))$. But $f_i(V)⊆Y$, and $f_i$ is continuous, then for every $f_i(V)⊆Y$ open, $f_i^{-1}(f_i(V))$ is open, which implies that $V⊆Y$ is open.
Is my attempt correct?