Take two open intervals $I,J\subseteq \mathbb{R}$ and a bijection $f:I\rightarrow J$ with inverse $g:J\rightarrow I$.
For every $k \in \mathbb{N}, k \geq 1$, I know that if $f \in C^k(I,J)$ and for all $t \in I$, $f'(t) \neq 0 $ then $g \in C^k(J,I)$, but I don't know how to prove it. The way I thought I would go about this is:
- I find the general form of the $k$-th derivative of $g$
- I realize that $g^{(k)}$ is the composition of continuous functions and is therefore continuous
The trouble is, the general form of $g^{(k)}$ seems to get very complicated, so I was wondering if there is any other way to show this in a simpler way (most likely using induction). My final aim is to prove that $f$ is smooth if and only if $g$ is.
On a related sidenote, I seem to recall that the result is still true if we take $I,J\subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ open and simply connected (with the jacobian of $f$ being invertible for all $x \in I$). I would just like to know if this is true out of curiousity.
Edit: I forgot an ipotesis on the first derivative being not $0$ on all of $I$, added it.