Given two topological space $X$ and $Y$, $f:X\times Y\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is continuous. Then, how do we prove $f_x:Y\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ defined as $f_x(y)\equiv f(x,y)$ is cotinuous for $\forall x\in X$?
For any open set $U\subset\mathbb{R}$, we need to show $f^{-1}_x(U)$ is open in $Y$. $f_x^{-1}(U)= \pi_Y(f^{-1}(U)\cap (\{x\}\times Y) )$, where $\pi_Y$ is the projection map, which is open. But $(\{x\}\times Y)$ is not open.
Ah, $f^{-1}(U)$ is open in $X\times Y$, thus, it is the union of basic open sets, i.e., $f^{-1}(U)=\cup_i A_i\times B_i$. Then, $\pi_Y(f^{-1}(U)\cap (\{x\}\times Y))=\cup_j B_j$ which is open in $Y$.