So, I was trying to prove that $n^{\frac{1}{n}} \rightarrow 1$ where $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
Here's what I did:
Since $n^{1/n}>1$, let us suppose $n=(1+k)^n$ for $n>1$ and some $k>0$.
Now, I used the binomial expansion and wrote: $$\begin{align} n&=1+nk+\frac{n(n-1)}{2}k^2+....+k^n \geq1+\frac{n(n-1)}{2}k \\ &\Rightarrow n-1 \geq \frac{n(n-1)}{2}k^2 \\ &\Rightarrow k^2 \leq \frac{2}{n} \end{align}$$
So now, we can always find an $n>0$ such that $\frac{2}{\epsilon^2}<n\Rightarrow \frac{2}{n}<\epsilon^2$.
Now, as $|n^{\frac{1}{n}}-1|\geq0$, we have,
$n^{\frac{1}{n}}-1=k\leq(\frac{2}{n})^{\frac{1}{2}}<\epsilon$
And in this way, I proved that $n^{\frac{1}{n}}\rightarrow1$.
I wanted to know how can I prove this without using Binomial expansion. I tried to do this using the Bernoulli's Inequality, but couldn't get too far.
Any help/hint would be highly appreciable.