As part of a homework problem, we proved that we can test whether an element $g$ of a finite group $G$ is in the normalizer of a cyclic subgroup $H=\langle x\rangle$ by conjugating just the generator $x$ by $g$, $$gxg^{-1}=x^{a} \iff g\in N_{G}(H)$$
for some $a\in\mathbb{Z}$. Namely, this means we can test a cyclic group for normality by merely conjugating the single generator and seeing if the result is a power of $x$: $$H\trianglelefteq G \iff \forall g\in G, gxg^{-1}=x^{a}$$
for some $a\in \mathbb{Z}$.
Simply out of curiosity, and because it might be useful later, I was wondering if this extends to any finitely-generated subgroup. If $A=\{a_{1}, a_{2}, \ldots, a_{k}\}$ for some fixed elements $a_{i}\in G$, for some fixed $k\in\mathbb{Z}^{+}$, and if we wanted to check if $\langle A\rangle$ is normal in $G$, does it suffice to show that $ga_{i}g^{-1}=a_{i}^{n}$ for every generator $a_{i}\in A$? I think the answer is yes, and here is my attempt at a proof.
Suppose for all $g\in G$, for all $1\leq i\leq k$, $ga_{i}g^{-1}=a_{i}^{n_{i}}$ for some $n_{i}\in\mathbb{Z}$. Then, $\langle A\rangle = \{a_{1}^{\alpha_{1}}a_{2}^{\alpha_{1}}\ldots a_{k}^{\alpha_{k}} \mid a_{i}\in A, \alpha_{i}\in\mathbb{Z}\}$. So, taking an arbitrary element $x$ from $\langle A\rangle$, we have that
$$gxg^{-1}=g(a_{1}^{\alpha_{1}}a_{2}^{\alpha_{1}}\ldots a_{k}^{\alpha_{k}})g^{-1} = g\left[a_{1}^{\alpha_{1}} (g^{-1}g) a_{2}^{\alpha_{1}}(g^{-1}g) \ldots(g^{-1}g) a_{k}^{\alpha_{k}}\right]g^{-1} = (ga_{1}^{\alpha_{1}}g^{-1})(g a_{2}^{\alpha_{1}}g^{-1})(g \ldots g^{-1})(g a_{k}^{\alpha_{k}}g^{-1}) $$
One of the lemmas of the homework problem was that $gx^{k}g^{-1}=(gxg^{-1})^{k}$ for $k\in\mathbb{Z}$, and the proof was pretty straightforward. Continuing, we have that $$= (ga_{1}g^{-1})^{\alpha_{1}} (ga_{2}g^{-1})^{\alpha_{2}} \ldots(ga_{k}g^{-1})^{\alpha_{k}} = a_{1}^{n_{1}\alpha_{1}} a_{2}^{n_{2}\alpha_{2}} \ldots a_{k}^{n_{k}\alpha_{k}} \in \langle A\rangle $$ and $\langle A\rangle$ is normal in $G$. Therefore, if conjugation of the generators results in them raised to some power, then $\langle A\rangle$ is normal, and hence, we only need to check the generators to check for the normality of $\langle A\rangle$.
This seems sensible and seems correct, I just wanted to check it with the greater public. Also, even if it is true, is it useful? Is the best/easiest way to check for the normality of a finitely-generated subgroup to check if conjugation of the generators results in them raised to a certain power, or will this never come in handy? Thanks!