Let us be in $\mathbb{R}^3$, with the wave equation $u_{tt} - \Delta_x u =0$ satisfying the initial conditions $u(0,x)=f(x)$, $u_t(0,x)=g(x)$. We define the spherical average of $u$, $U(t,r,x) = \frac{1}{4\pi r^2} \int_{\partial B(x,r)} u(t,\sigma) d \sigma$.
My question is, why is ($B(0,1)$ is the ball centered at $0$ with radius $1$) $$U(t,r,x) = \frac{1}{4\pi r^2} \int_{\partial B(x,r)} u(t,\sigma) d \sigma = \frac{1}{4\pi} \int_{\partial B(0,1)} u(t,x + r \omega) d \omega?$$ Clearly we are doing change of variables, but I don't understand the part where we scale by $r^2$.