will any divisor of $0

Question

Will any divisor of both $a,b>0$ also divide $\gcd(a,b)$?

Anyone have a proof of this if it is true, or counter in case of false? thanks,

uniquesolution · Answer 1 · 2020-10-02T11:59:58.943

0

Because the greatest common divisor of two integers is a linear combination of them. See the link kindly provided below.

edited Oct 02 '20 at 11:59

answered Oct 02 '20 at 11:58

uniquesolution

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bézout%27s_identity – lhf Oct 02 '20 at 11:58
Or kindly provided in the duplicate above by Bill Dubuque.... – Dietrich Burde Oct 02 '20 at 12:00
@@@ Great thanks – ghetto_department Oct 02 '20 at 12:05
1

@ghetto_department You are welcome. For your next question, the fourth one then, please google for answers here before posting. Usually questions on gcd have been answered already. – Dietrich Burde Oct 02 '20 at 12:07
Dietrich Burde thank your for your useful comments! Order must be restored. – uniquesolution Oct 02 '20 at 12:09
Yeah, I know, there is not always a unique solution here. – Dietrich Burde Oct 02 '20 at 14:14

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