How can one prove the following deduction? Assume we know the following result.
$$ \frac{1}{2}\arctan\left( \frac{y}{x+1} \right) + \frac{1}{2}\arctan\left( \frac{y}{x-1} \right) - \arctan\left( \frac{y}{x} \right) = c$$
Then, it is claimed that this is equivalent to the following. I am not able to figure out why.
$$ \frac{(x^2+y^2)^2+y^2-x^2}{xy} = k$$
I am aware of the formula for addition $\arctan(x) + \arctan(y)$ but I am not sure how to deal with prefactors of $1/2$.