Let $p$ be an odd prime number and $a$, $b$ and $c$ integers such that $p$ does not divide $a$, and does not divide $D=b^2-4ac$, and such that $$ax^2+bx+c\equiv0\pmod{p},$$ is solvable. Prove that in this case $ay^2 + by + c \equiv 0 \mod p^2$ is solvable too.
Well, the only thing that I was able to do is get $D$ from quadratic equation:
\begin{eqnarray*} ax^2 + bx + c &=& a(x^2 + bx/a) + c\\ & =& a(x^2 + 2\cdot b/2a + (b/2a)^2) - a(b/2a)^2 + c\\ &=&a(x + b/2a)^2 - \left(\frac{b^2 - 4ac}{4a}\right)\\ &=& a(x + b/2a)^2 - \left(\frac{D}{4a}\right) \end{eqnarray*} Since $D$ is not divisible by $p$, $D/4a$ is not divisible by $p$ too. So in order to make this equation true remainders of both $\frac{D}{4a}$ and $a(x + b/2a)^2$ should be equal to each other. Let us say that it is $r_1$.
Okay, then let $a(x + b/2a)^2$ be $p\cdot k + r_1$ and $D/4a = p \cdot m + r_1$. But can't move on with this proof. I tried several paths but all of them didn't lead me anywhere.
Your help will be much appreciated!