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How do I prove this if I am given the information that: $p \ge 2$ and is a prime and $g$ is an element of order $p − 1$ in $\Bbb Z_p$.

I know I am supposed to use Fermat's little theorem and do a contradiction proof but I am not quite sure on how to do it.

Bill Dubuque
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Jopps
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1 Answers1

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Hint: if, by Fermat's little theorem, $a^p = a$ in $\mathbb{Z}_p$... what can you say about $a^{p-1}$?