What is the antiderivative, and line-by-line derivation, of
$$\int_0^1 \int_0^1 x\cdot y \enspace \ln(x\cdot y) \enspace dx \hspace{1mm} dy = \enspace ?$$
Not sure if this would help, but could we generalize from the following well-known rule
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty x \ln x \hspace{1mm} dx = \frac{1}{2}x^2 \ln x - \frac{1}{4} x^2 + C$$