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I know that there is a transfinite construction of the Borel sets, and, more generally, of the $\sigma$-algebra generated by a subset of $P(X)$ for any set $X$. This construction ends at the first uncountable ordinal, if I am not mistaken.

A mistake I have noticed in some of my peers is (perhaps through association with the much easier case for topological space generated by a subset) the assumption that one can make such a process terminating at the first countable ordinal. Of course, it is easy to shake and question this assumption, but I would like to have a practical example to show that it is irredeemably wrong.

To be more precise, it would be perhaps reasonable at first glance to assume the following:

Let $\mathcal{B}$ be the Borel $\sigma$-algebra on $\mathbb{R}$. Furthermore, define $B_0$ as the set of opens on $\mathbb{R}$, and define $B_{n+1}$ as $B_n$, plus the set of countable intersections of elements in $B_n$, plus the set of countable unions, plus the complementaries. It could be conjectured that $\mathcal{B} = \bigcup_{n=0}^\infty B_n$.

What I'm looking for is a proof that this conjecture is wrong, if possible by an example of a Borel set that isn't in any $B_n$.

Note: I think that there might be standardized notation to what I have called $B_n$, something to do with the Borel hierarchy, but I couldn't figure out what the correct notation would be, so I made up my own.

Robly18
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If you proved that $B_n$ is a proper subset of $B_{n+1}$, then this is easy. Let's start with a naive approach, and then fix it if it breaks down.

Let $X_n\in B_{n+1}\setminus B_n$, then $X=\bigcup X_n$ is a Borel set, as a countable union of Borel sets, and it is not in any of the $B_n$'s.

But why isn't $X$ in any of the $B_n$'s? What if we took, by pure chance, a descending sequence of sets, so that $X=B_0$?

Well, in that case, add the assumption that each $X_n$ is chosen to be pairwise disjoint from $X_k$ for $k<n$. This is not hard to arrange: simply require that $X_n\subseteq (n,n+1)$.

So why is it that $X$ is not in $B_n$ for any $n$? Well, because $(n,n+1)$ are all open sets, if $X\in B_n$, then $X\cap (n+1,n+2)\in B_n$ as well, but this is just $X_{n+1}$ which we assume is not in $B_n$.

Asaf Karagila
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    Great. Except how do you show $B_{n+1}\ne B_n$? Assuming that strikes me as close to just assuming the conclusion... – David C. Ullrich Sep 17 '20 at 14:47
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    @David: That's a different question, but the OP said that people make the mistake that the Borel hierarchy, as he defined it, collapses after countably many steps. So presumably, they can see why it doesn't collapse after a single step, or two steps, etc. If you want to get technical, yes, we can get technical and talk about universal $\Sigma^0_n$-sets. – Asaf Karagila Sep 17 '20 at 14:48
  • I appreciate the answer, but I have to agree with David. I should have expressed myself better. When I said "terminate at the first countable ordinal", I really meant "it is enough to do this process only until then". I do like the argument, though. Is there an easy way to show that the $B_n$ don't stabilize in finitely many steps? – Robly18 Sep 17 '20 at 16:37
  • @Robly18: Not that easy, since it is consistent with ZF that the hierarchy is stable after three stages (or four?) and it is consistent that it takes longer than $\omega_1$ steps as well, any such argument will inevitably use some nontrivial amount of set theory. How much are you comfortable with? – Asaf Karagila Sep 17 '20 at 16:50
  • If I had to wager, I would say "not enough". I was hoping for something of the difficulty level of something like Vitali's set: a simple application of choice. Unfortunately, I don't know much of anything about ordinals or well-order types. – Robly18 Sep 17 '20 at 17:35
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    Unfortunately, there's a lot of simple questions whose answers are quite complicated. – Asaf Karagila Sep 17 '20 at 17:36
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Asaf's answer exemplifies the point of departure from $\sigma$-algebras —and “universal” algebras with infinitary operations in general— from the customary realm of finitary operations: The union of an increasing sequence of infinitary algebras is not necessarily closed under the operations. And the fact that the first uncountable ordinal $\omega_1$ is regular (closed under limits of sequences, in this particular case) is what ensures that the union of an increasing transfinite sequence of $\sigma$-algebras with length $\omega_1$ is a $\sigma$-algebra. The same holds for any infinitary algebra with operations with countable arity.

A particular example of Borel subset not belonging to any of the $B_n$ would necessarily be contrived (all natural examples from analysis are in $B_5$ or so, and then jump into analytic sets). Such examples can be found in Kechris' Classical Descriptive Set Theory, Sect. 23.G.

For describing one of them, consider the Cantor ternary set $\mathcal{C}\subset\mathbb{R}$. There is a natural map (a homeomorphism, in fact) from $G :\{0,1\}^{\mathbb{N}}\to \mathcal{C}$ by using binary-to-ternary expansions. Now we can code total orders $R$ on $\mathbb{N}$ by functions $f_R:\mathbb{N}\to \{0,1\}$: $$ n \mathrel{R} m \iff f_R(2^n\cdot 3^m) = 1, $$ where $f_R(k) = 0$ for every $k$ such that $6\nmid k$. Finally, our set can be defined as $$ G\bigl(\{f_R\in 2^{\mathbb{N}} : R \text{ is a well-order of } \mathbb{N} \text{ in type}<\omega^\omega\}\bigr). $$

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    I appreciate the answer, in that it seems to be exactly what I wanted: a concrete example of a set that is Borel but not in any $B_n$, together with a source for more detail! Unfortunately, this seems to be way above measure theory 101 paygrade. If there is no elementary answer within a reasonable timeframe I will accept this answer, but an answer I cannot understand is not the most satisfactory possibility. I can see, though, from the looks of this book, that this rabbit hole goes much deeper than I would have expected... – Robly18 Sep 17 '20 at 16:44
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    @Robly18 Glad to hear it is useful for you. The proof are not elementary, but I can clarify some details of the construction. – Pedro Sánchez Terraf Sep 17 '20 at 22:33
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    On the one hand, I'd also love to know about a simpler example, but on the other one the non-existence of such a thing would be great evidence on the pervasiveness of mathematical logic. – Pedro Sánchez Terraf Sep 17 '20 at 22:40