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I'm reading a proof that $$ (2/p) = (-1)^{\frac{p^2 -1}8} $$ for odd primes $p$. I follow the proof upto and including this line: enter image description here

Which follows from the fact $$p \equiv \pm 1 \pmod 8 \implies \frac{p^2 -1}8 \equiv 0 \pmod 2 \tag{1} $$ and similarly $$p \equiv \pm 3 \pmod 8 \implies \frac{p^2 -1}8 \equiv 1 \pmod 2 \tag{2}. $$

However to convince myself of these last facts I had to write $p = 8k +1$ and go from there etc. Is there an easy way to (1) and (2), or at least a way to show it without leaving modular arithmetic?

I'm sure I'm missing something obvious, but several of the proofs in this course involve similar deductions and I'd rather know the simpler route, thanks!

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