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I want to prove that -
(Axiom of Choice) Let $I$ be a set and for each $\alpha\in I$ let $X_\alpha$ be a non-empty set. Suppose that $X_\alpha \cap X_\beta=\emptyset$ for all $\alpha\ne\beta$. Then there is a set $Y$ such that $|Y\cap X_\alpha|=1\ \forall \alpha\in I$.
Here I take $A=\bigcup_{\alpha\in I} X_\alpha$ and $B=I$ and define $g:A\to B$ be $g(x)=\alpha$ if $x_\alpha\in X_\alpha$. This map $g$ is well defined from the fact that $X_\alpha\cap X_\beta=\emptyset$. Again $g$ is onto because $X_\alpha\ne \emptyset \ \forall \alpha\in I$.
So by our given hypothesis $\exists$ an injective map $f:I\to\bigcup_{\alpha\in I}X_\alpha$. But it doesn't imply that $f(\alpha)\in X_\alpha\ \forall \alpha\in I$.
Can anyone help me to complete the proof?

MathBS
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1 Answers1

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Trichotomy of cardinals implies AC, see here or here e.g.

Your statement implies that trichotomy, I think. So the proof is not as direct as you'd like...

Henno Brandsma
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