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Let $\mathfrak{g}$ be a semisimple Lie algebra over $\mathbb C$ equipped with an inner product $<,>$ such that

$$\langle ad_X Y,Z\rangle=-\langle Y, ad_X Z\rangle$$

and $\mathfrak{h}$ be a Cartan subalgebra. It follows that the linear operators $ad(x),x\in \mathfrak{h}$ on $\mathfrak{h}$ commute with each other, so they are simutaneously diagonalizable. The references I have read so far say that it follows from here that we have

$$\mathfrak{g}=\mathfrak{h}\oplus \bigoplus_{\alpha \in R} \mathfrak{g}_\alpha,$$

where $$\mathfrak{g}_\alpha:=\left\{X\in \mathfrak{g}: [H,X]=\langle\alpha, H\rangle X, \forall H\in \mathfrak h \right\}$$ and $R$ is the set of roots (all possible $\alpha$'s satisfying the equation above).

My question is that given an element in $\mathfrak{g}$, how do we use the simultaneous diagonalization to write it as a sum of elements of $\mathfrak{h}$ and $\mathfrak{g}_\alpha$. This should be pure linear algebra but I can't figure out how.

The answer https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1685174/185631 doesn't address how is the simultaneous diagonalization being used exactly I think. Yes, one can take a basis of $\mathfrak g$ so that for any $h\in \mathfrak h$, the matrix of $\text{ad}(h)$ is diagonal. But how to write an element in $\mathfrak{g}$ as a sum?

If there are any mistakes in my description above, please let me know.

an4s
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No One
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    Well, $\frak h=\frak g_0$ – Angina Seng Sep 09 '20 at 17:02
  • As for the actual question, well you just said you have a basis of the Lie algebra $\mathfrak g$, surely you can write every element of $\mathfrak g$ as a linear combination of basis vectors ... compare also my answer to https://math.stackexchange.com/q/2095754/96384. – Torsten Schoeneberg Sep 09 '20 at 17:04
  • Made some changes. Thanks to all. – No One Sep 09 '20 at 17:16
  • @TorstenSchoeneberg Yes with a basis I can write an element as a sum but I don't see how each component ends up in $g_\alpha$. – No One Sep 09 '20 at 17:28
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    Well that basis consists of vectors $v$ which are eigenvectors to all $ad h$ for $h$ in the CSA. Write down what that means. I claim it implies for each such $v$ there is a linear map $l_v: \mathfrak h \rightarrow \mathbb C$ s.t. $(ad h)(v) = l_v(h)(v)$ for all $h$. Now that linear map is either a root, or zero, in which case go to Angina Seng's comment. – Torsten Schoeneberg Sep 09 '20 at 18:27

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