I need to prove that $f(A_0 \cup A_1) = f(A_0) \cup f(A_1)$ where $f: A \to B$ is a mapping of sets and $A_0,A_1 \subseteq A$.
So, I saw this question and figured out the first direction ($f(A_0 \cup A_1) \subseteq f(A_0) \cup f(A_1)$). I got a little stuck in the other direction and I wanted to know if I worded my proof logically:
Let $y \in f(A_0 \cup A_1)$ be arbitrary. Then $y \in f(A_0 \cup A_1) = \{f(a) | a \in A_0 \cup A_1\}$ means that $y = f(x)$ for some $x \in A_0 \cup A_1$. By the definition of set union $x \in A_0 \cup A_1$ means $x \in A_0$ or $x \in A_1$. Recall $y = f(x)$ and suppose $x\in A_0$, it follows that $y \in \{f(a) | a \in A_0\} = f(A_0)$. Now, suppose instead that $x \in A_1$ and $y = f(x)$, it follows that $y \in \{f(a) | a\in A_1\} = f(A_1)$. Thus, in either case, $y \in f(A_0) \cup f(A_1)$. Since $y \in f(A_0 \cup A_1)$ and we have just shown that $y \in f(A_0) \cup f(A_1)$ then $f(A_0 \cup A_1) \subseteq f(A_0) \cup f(A_1)$.
Let $y \in f(A_0) \cup f(A_1)$ be arbitrary. Then $y \in f(A_0) = \{f(a)|a \in A_0\}$ or $y \in f(A_1) = \{f(a)|a \in A_1\}$. So $y \in f(A_0)$ means $y = f(x)$ for some $x \in A_0$ or $y = f(x)$ for some $x \in A_1$. By the definition of set union $x \in A_0 \cup A_1$, thus $y \in f(A_0 \cup A_1)$. Therefore, $f(A_0 \cup A_1) = f(A_0) \cup f(A_1)$.
I think I'm missing the connection between defining the set union and getting to the desired result.