If $\gcd(a, b) = 1$ and $\gcd(a, c) = 1$, then $\gcd(a, bc) = 1$.
A proof using Bezout's Identity was written as follows:
Using Bezout's Identity:
Since there are $x,y,u,v$ so that $\color{#C00000}{ax+by=1}$ and $\color{#00A000}{au+cv=1}$, we have $$ \begin{align} \color{#C00000}{by}\color{#00A000}{cv} &=\color{#C00000}{(1-ax)}\color{#00A000}{(1-au)}\\ &=1-a(x+u-axu)\\ \color{#0000FF}{a}(x+u-axu)+\color{#0000FF}{bc}vy &=1 \end{align} $$ Therefore, $(\color{#0000FF}{a},\color{#0000FF}{bc})=1$
However, as far as I understand, Bezout's Identity does not work in the converse. In other words, $\color{#FF00FF}{a(k) + bc(j) = 1}$ does not imply $(\color{#0000FF}{a},\color{#0000FF}{bc})=1$.
Do I not understand Bezout's Identity, or does this proof work for some other reason?