I know that this question has been asked before, but I still can't find a clear answer, I read here this question: Show that the set of all finite subsets of $\mathbb{N}$ is countable. and a guy wrote:
$\emptyset, \{1\}, \{2\}, \{1, 2\}, \{3\}, \{1, 3\}, \{2, 3\}, \{1, 2, 3\}, \{4\}, \ldots$, this would be the power set of $\mathbb{N}$ listed in a row, why would this create a bijection between $\mathbb{N}$ and this set? (which would prove that the power set of $\mathbb{N}$ isn't equinumerous with $\mathbb{R}$)?
Or for example writing:
$\{1\}, \{2\}, \{3\}, \{4\}, \ldots$
$\{1, 2\}, \{1, 3\}, \{1, 4\}, \ldots$
$\{1, 2, 3\}, \{1, 2, 4\}, \{1, 2, 5\} \ldots$
$\{1, 3, 4\}, \{1, 3, 5\}, \{1, 3, 6\} \ldots$
$\{1, 10, 11\}, \{1, 10, 12\}, \{1, 10, 13\} \ldots$
$\vdots$
$\{2, 3\}, \{2, 4\}, \{2, 5\}, \ldots$
$\{2, 3, 4\}, \{2, 3, 5\}, \{2, 3, 6\} \ldots$
$\vdots$
and then do the diagonalization thing that Cantor used to prove the rational numbers are countable:
Why wouldn't this work?
P.s: I know the proof that the power set of a set has a larger cardinality that the first set, and I also know the proof that cantor used to prove that no matter how you list the real numbers you can always find another one that is not inside that list. I know the proof that the power set of $\mathbb{N}$ is equal to $\mathbb{R}$ as well, I'm not saying that my argument is correct and theirs is wrong, I'm just trying to understand why mine is wrong