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Given the set $\mathbb{Z}^2$, if we draw a line passing through $(0,0)$ which is some fraction $a/b=r$ of a full revolution from $(1,0)$, how many rational solutions are there for $r$ which pass through non-zero points in $\mathbb{Z}^2$?

Clearly, any multiple of $1/8$ of a revolution passes through non-zero lattice points right next to the origin, so there are 8 angles that are trivial solutions, but are there any more?

bjshnog
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  • How is rational angle defined in your problem? Perhaps you are thinking of angles measured in degrees? In radians the angle for one-eighth revolution is $\pi/4$, which is irrational. – hardmath Aug 31 '20 at 13:08
  • Any rational multiple of a revolution. – bjshnog Aug 31 '20 at 13:08
  • Please include the full problem statement in the body of your Question. While this might seem redundant, the title is not usually enough room to give the proper statement of your problem, and the body of the Question allows the setup and goal to be parsed along side the context (such as the observed partial solution you presented). – hardmath Aug 31 '20 at 13:12

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If I've understood your question right, how many rational angles (using the definition that a rational angle is one such that $\theta = a \cdot 360°, a \in \mathbb{Q}$) are there such that if you draw a line through the origin at that angle with the $x$-axis, at one point that line hits a lattice point?

The answer to this question is, unfortunately, no (unless you consider $\frac{3}{8}$, $\frac{5}{8}$ and $\frac{7}{8}$ other non-trivial solutions). Here's a proof (it's probably wrong but whatever):

Let $\theta$ = $\frac{a}{b}$, with $a \in \mathbb{Z}$ and $b \in \mathbb{Z}_0$. The formula for a line through the origin given an angle in this format is $y = \tan(2\pi n)$. We want to know all points where that $\text{tan}(2\pi \theta)$ is an integer. You can find a value of $\tan(2\pi \theta)$ arbitrarily close to any integer (see this Math SE question for an explanation), but you'll never actually hit an integer. The only roots for $\tan(x)$ are of the form $\pi n$ with $n \in \mathbb{Z}$ which is unfortunately always going to be irrational.

The reason that $\frac{1}{8}$ (and its aforementioned cousins) do work is simply because $\frac{1}{8} \cdot 2\pi$ is $\frac{\pi}{4}$ and $\tan(\frac{\pi}{4})$ is one, so the formula for the line turns into $y = x$.

WalrusGumboot
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