3

We know that every zero divisor is a topological zero divisor but not every topological zero divisor is a zero divisor. First I define the terms: Zero divisor: In a Banach Algebra $A$ an element $x\in A$ is said to be a zero divisor if there exist $0\neq y\in A$ such that $xy=0$. Topological divisor of zero: An element $x\in A$ is said to be a topological divisor of zero if there exist a sequence ${x_n}$ with $||x_n||=1$ such that $xx_n\rightarrow 0$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$.

I was trying to find topological zero divisors in $\mathbb C^n$. Suppose $x=(x_1,x_2,...,x_n)$ is a topological zero divisor. Now every topological zero divisor is a singular element, so $x$ is also a singular element. Then we must have at least one $1\leq i \leq n$ such that $x_i=0$. Take $y=(0,\dots,0,1,0,\ldots,0)$ where $1$ is at $i^{\rm th}$ place. Then $y\neq 0$ and $xy=0$. So $x$ is a zero divisor.

So in $\Bbb C^n$ all topological zero divisors are in fact zero divisors. Am I correct?

  • 2
    Just include the definitions (zero divisor and more importantly, topological zero divisor). Then surely you'll get answers in little time. Not everybody knows what you are talking about, and even if they do, a refresher is always welcome. – Giuseppe Negro Aug 03 '21 at 13:06

1 Answers1

3

Yes, you are correct (I interpret singular elements as being "non-invertible" elements) . To supply some details : if $x$ is a topological zero divisor , and $x_n \in \mathbb C^n$ are such that $\|x_n\| = 1$, $xx_n \to 0$, then we claim that $x$ is singular , for if there is $y$ with $yx=xy = \mathbf 1$ (where $\mathbf 1$ is the unit element) then $yxx_n = (yx)x_n = x_n$, however $yxx_n = y(xx_n) \to y\mathbf 0 = \mathbf 0$ by continuity of left multiplication by a fixed element.

It follows that $x_n \to \mathbf 0$, a contradiction since $\|x_n - \mathbf 0\| = 1$ for all $n$. Hence, $x$ is singular.

Write $x = (x_1,...,x_n)$ (now $x_n$ are complex numbers, thus we move away from the previous notation). Since $x$ is singular, at least one component $x_j \neq 0$, since otherwise $\left(\frac 1{x_j}\right)$ is an inverse of $x$. Now, if $x_j = 0$ then $y$ given by $y_i = 0$, $i \neq j$ and $y_j =1$ is an element such that $yx = xy=\mathbf 0$, completing the argument. $\blacksquare$


Can we do better, though? Like, this is just $\mathbb C^n$ that we talked about. So some more work might give us a little more benefit.

Indeed, we made heavy use of the structure of $\mathbb C^n$ above, because we knew precisely what the set of zero divisors was. However, there's a different way we can capture this result, in more generality.

Let $B$ be any finite dimensional Banach algebra. Then, any (left/right alone will suffice as well) topological divisor of zero is a usual divisor of zero.

Proof : Suppose $x \in B$ and $\|x_n\| =1$, $xx_n \to 0$. The key point is that the unit ball of a finite dimensional Banach Algebra is compact (for a hint, you can write each element in terms of the finitely many basis elements and work with the component sequences, using the fact that these are bounded and Bolzano-Weierstrass holds), and hence there is a subsequence $x_{n_k} \to z$ for some $z \in B$,but then $xx_{n_k} \to xz = 0$ so $x$ is a zero divisor. $\blacksquare$


In infinite dimensions, topological zero divisors have other characterizations. This one is nice :

Let $G \subset B$ be the set of invertible elements of a Banach algebra. Then $\partial G$, the topological boundary of $G$, consists purely of topological divisors of zero.

Proof : Suppose that $x \in \partial G$. Since $G$ is open, $\partial G \cap G = \emptyset$ so $x \notin G$. Now, let $x_n$ be invertible, $x_n \to x$. We claim that $\|x_{n}^{-1}\| \to \infty$ as $n \to \infty$.

Indeed, let $\|x_{n_k}\|^{-1} \leq M$ for all $k$ and some $M$. Then , use the identity : $$ \|x_{n_k}^{-1} - x_{n_l}^{-1}\| = \|x_{n_k}^{-1}(x_{n_l} - x_{n_k})x_{n_l}^{-1}\| \leq \|x_{n_k}\|^{-1} \|x_{n_l}\|^{-1}\|x_{n_k} - x_{n_l}\| $$

To see that if $x_{n_k}$ is convergent, then so must $x_{n_k}^{-1}$ be. If this converges to some $y \in B$ then $yx=xy=1$ can be verified, a contradiction. Hence the assumption is false.

Now, if $\|x_n^{-1}\| \to \infty$ then of course $xx_n^{-1} \to 0$ but $x_n^{-1} \not \to 0$, so normalizing $x_n^{-1}$ to have norm $1$ we conclude that $x$ is a topological zero divisor. $\blacksquare$


Finally, we must touch on permanent singularity, and a nice characterization theorem of Arens, proved here.

Definition : A singular element $a \in B$ is called permanently singular if for every Banach algebra $Y$ that extends $B$ (i.e. the norm of $Y$ restricts to the norm of $B$ on $B$ , and they share the same unit), $a$ is still singular in $Y$.

The remarkable theorem of Arens is the following :

Let $B$ be a unital commutative Banach algebra. Then, $a \in B$ is a topological divisor if and only if it is permanently singular.

Another nice theorem of Zelazko eliminates topological zero divisors by passing through an isomorphism :

Let $A$ be a Banach algebra, then there exists an extension algebra $B$ of $A$ and a homomorphism $\Theta : A \to B$ such that $\Theta$ , restricting the codomain to its image is an isometric isomorphism, and $x \in A$ is a topological zero divisor if and only if $\Theta(x)$ is a "usual" zero divisor (in their respective domains).

These results help us understand topological and usual zero divisors better.